Debt Questions forum. General questions on debt issues.

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ByHelen3105
#6924 My partner was declared bankrupt about 6 years ago... Suddenly in the last couple of months bills have started appearing addressed in the name of his old business, from people who were owed money when he went bankrupt. These include a bill from the Inland Revenue for quite a sizeable amount. How can this happen? We were under the impression that ALL debts were dead and gone because of the bankruptcy. Any advice would be gratefully appreciated.
ByTootsie Roll
#6929 I'm not an expert in bankruptcy matters but I believe that Inland Revenue debt does not get included in bankruptcy - can anyone confirm this ?
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ByJoannec
#6930 Post the question on ask the expert - Simon will know for definite.
Byhomely
#6941 my husband is br and he was told by the or that he isn't liable for the debt previous to our br but as of the6th april (the day we went br)he will have to pay the bill so he has to save each month to be able to pay for this years tax
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ByJaneClack
#6942 Inland Revenue debt IS included in bankruptcy and indeed in the tax year that the bankruptcy occurs in there will be a nil tax code as any tax would go to the Official Receiver.
ByCrashDive
#6950 I had a similar problem which I have just been told has been resolved by the Inland Revenue.

Ring them up, explain and ask to speak to the Technical Dept, explain again.

They then should pass this on to the Customer Services Dept who will have your Bill processed through the old ref, thereby taking it off the present Inland Revenue calculations.

At least that is what they have informed me, its a simple error more than likely.

best regards
CrashDive :wink:
ByTootsie Roll
#6955
Sarah wrote:Inland Revenue debt IS included in bankruptcy and indeed in the tax year that the bankruptcy occurs in there will be a nil tax code as any tax would go to the Official Receiver.


Thanks Sarah - wasn't sure.
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