We divorced two years ago and at that time she was unable to get a Mortgage in her own right thus we continued the joint mortgage which she paid. Would I be able to argue (for bankruptcy purposes) that this is not an undervalue transaction but just a delayed Divorce Settlement.
If this is not the case as a resident of Scotland will I have to wait five years before there is no risk of the OR attempting to "undo" the above transaction. The property is in England.
The bottom line is I'd rather she had the money than creditors. I will not gain in any way from this transaction.